Good luck on the final!
Here are the review problems from Thursday’s class. Very brief hints/answers/solution sketches are below the cut:
- $\exists p_3~ \big[ M(p_1,p_3) \wedge \big( M(p_3,p_2) \vee F(p_3,p_2) \big) \big]$
- Make a truth table to show that $((p\to r)\wedge(q\to r)\wedge(p\vee q))\to r$ is a tautology. This rule of inference is the basis for proof by cases.
- See “Why Mathematical Induction is Valid”, p. 314 in the book.
- \begin{align*} |{\mathcal P}(A)\cup {\mathcal P}(B)| &= |{\mathcal P}(A)|+|{\mathcal P}(B)|-|{\mathcal P}(A)\cap{\mathcal P}(B)| \\ &= |{\mathcal P}(A)|+|{\mathcal P}(B)|-|{\mathcal P}(A\cap B)| \\ &= 2^5+2^4-2^2 \\ &=44 \end{align*}
- $f$ is not an injection (ex: $f(1,0)=f(0,1)$). But $f$ is a surjection, because for all real $z$ we have $f(z,0)=z$.
- For example, the set of integers has the same cardinality as the set of even integers (there is a bijection mapping $n$ to $2n$).
- Let $S=\{a_1,a_2,a_3,\ldots\}$. Then we can arrange all the finite subsets of $S$ into sequential order: $$\varnothing,\{a_1\},\{a_2\},\{a_1,a_2\},\{a_3\},\{a_1,a_3\},\{a_2,a_3\},\{a_1,a_2,a_3\},\{a_4\},\ldots$$ (it is left to the reader to work out the details of this ordering). Because the elements of ${\mathcal P}^*(S)$ can be arranged as a sequence, ${\mathcal P}^*(S)$ is countable.
- Refer to Theorem 5 on p. 242 of the book.
- Refer to Lemma 1 on p. 268.
- For example, $n=60$ works. Note that $143=11\cdot 13$. By FLT, $2^{10}\equiv 1\pmod{11}$ and $2^{12}\equiv 1\pmod{13}$. Thus $2^{10k}\equiv 1\pmod{11}$ and $2^{12\ell}\equiv 1\pmod{13}$ for all integers $k,\ell$. In particular, $2^{60}\equiv 1\pmod{11}$ and $2^{60}\equiv 1\pmod{13}$. By CRT, $2^{60}\equiv 1\pmod{143}$.
- Refer to Example 2 on p. 336.
- Check base cases $n=2,3$ and use strong induction.
- (a) $k^n$, (b) $P(k,n)$, (c) $n(n-3)/2$ or $\binom n2-n$, (d) $\binom{m+n}m$
- Eleven. Pigeonholes are the ten congruence classes modulo 10.
- Seven. Pigeonholes are {0}, {1,9}, {2,8}, {3,7}, {4,6}, {5}, where an integer is placed in the pigeonhole corresponding to its units digit. Two integers in the same pigeonhole have either difference or sum divisible by 10.
- Refer to Theorem 2 on p. 418.
- (a) $\binom{6+4-1}{4-1}$, (b) $\binom{52}{5,5,5,5,32}$, (c) $\binom 7{3,2,1,1}-\binom 7{3,1,1,1}$, (d) $4\cdot 3!=24$ because there are 4 ways to place the E’s
- Cody’s expected score is $(10)(0.8)=8$. Her probability of scoring exactly 8 is $\binom{10}8(0.8)^8(1-0.8)^2$. (See binomial distribution.)
- Expected value: $np$, variance: $n(p-p^2)$
- (a) $(0.6)(0.6)+(0.4)(0.2)=0.44$, (b) $\frac{(0.6)(0.6)}{(0.6)(0.6)+(0.4)(0.2)}=\frac 9{11}$ (Bayes FTW)
- There are 12 positions where two 0′s can be adjacent. The probability of this occurring in each position is $\frac 12\cdot\frac 12$. By linearity of expectation, the expected number of occurrences is $12\cdot\frac 12\cdot\frac 12=3$.
- Without the upper bound on $x_i$, there would be $\binom{10+4-1}{4-1}=\binom{13}3$ solutions. We want to exclude those for which one or more $x_i$ is greater than or equal to 5. For a given $i$, the number of solutions such that $x_i\ge 5$ is $\binom{5+4-1}{4-1}=\binom 83$. For given $i$ and $j$, the number of solutions such that $x_i\ge 5$ and $x_j\ge 5$ is $\binom 33=1$. Thus, by PIE, the number of solutions such that $x_i\le 4$ for every $i$ is $$\binom{13}3-\binom 41\binom 83+\binom 42\binom 33.$$
- $(1+x+x^2+x^3+\cdots)(1+x^5+x^{10}+x^{15}+\cdots)(1+x^{10}+x^{20}+x^{30}+\cdots)$ or $\frac 1{(1-x)(1-x^5)(1-x^{10})}$
- Each term in the expansion is of the form $x^{a_1}x^{a_2}\cdots x^{a_k}$, where $a_1,a_2,\ldots,a_k\in\mathbb N$. Thus we get one term of the form $x^n$ for each solution to the equation $a_1+a_2+\cdots+a_k=n$ (in natural numbers). The number of solutions, and thus the coefficient of $x^n$, is $\binom{n+k-1}{k-1}$ (see section 6.5 of the book).
- $a_n = \frac 23(2^n)-\frac 13(-1)^n$
- This problem and its solution were on one of Prof. Haiman’s tests (posted a few days ago).
- We must show that every pair of distinct vertices is adjacent. Let $u,v$ be distinct vertices. Since $G$ is connected, there is a path $u\to v_1\to v_2\to \cdots\to v_{n-1}\to v_n$, where $v_n=v$. Assume WLOG that this is the shortest such path and assume, aiming for a contradiction, that $n\ge 2$. Since $u~R~v_1$ and $v_1~R~v_2$, we have $u~R~v_2$ by transitivity. Thus we can shorten our path by replacing the first two edges with $u\to v_2$. That contradicts our choice of the shortest path. Thus the shortest path cannot have length 2 or greater; it must have length 1, meaning $u$ and $v$ are adjacent. Since every pair of vertices is adjacent, $G=K_n$.
- (a) $2^n$ vertices, $n\cdot 2^{n-1}$ edges. (b) $n!$ paths (we have to flip each bit once along a path, but we decide what order to flip them).
- Done in class earlier this week; check your notes.
- Note that $K_n$ has $\binom n2$ vertices, so $G,G’$ are each missing only one edge from $K_n$. Let the missing edge be $\{v_1,v_2\}$ in $G$ and let the missing edge be $\{v’_1,v’_2\}$ in $G’$. Then consider the bijection on vertices mapping $v_1$ to $v’_1$ and $v_2$ to $v’_2$ and mapping the remaining vertices however we want. This is an isomorphism.